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Post by Adam Beard on Feb 1, 2013 18:53:40 GMT -5
What do you guys think about what he has to say on page 10 where he is talking about the how the masculine pronoun is used when refering to the Holy Spirit?? I found it very helpful  oh and by the way im enjoy the book already |
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Post by Jonathan on Feb 5, 2013 6:33:36 GMT -5
This one is always interesting to me. Both the neuter (it) and the masculine (he) pronouns are used at different times. I wonder how much this mattered in ancient language. I have not taken the time to peruse how often that sort of thing happens.
Certainly this is one (among many) pieces of evidence that should be considered, but how much weight should be placed upon it, I am really not certain.
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Post by lclore on Feb 6, 2013 18:02:24 GMT -5
I don't think God has gender the way we do, so I'm not sure how significant the pronouns are. What do you think Adam about it or what are your opinions on it?
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Post by Jonathan on Feb 8, 2013 15:09:31 GMT -5
Well, certainly you agree that God the Son has gender, right?
Interesting, there are places where God (the Father?) is referenced with feminine qualities--being a mother bird, etc. There is some discussion--though it is largely discredited now--about the term "El Shaddai" (God Almighty) being a reference to God as feminine.
Clearly, you are correct that God is not essentially (when I use that word in discussions about the Trinity, I am using it as an academic term meaning "in His essence") gendered, but is that MLJ's point? Is he arguing that the Holy Spirit is a "He" masculine?
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